HistoricalChristian.Faith

Why does Matthew alone carry the exception clause?

Type: supporting argument (off-timeline) · Assessment: contested — the exception is best explained as authentic to Jesus’ Jewish-legal teaching, which Matthew makes explicit and Mark and Luke (writing for Gentiles) leave unstated, rather than a later softening of an absolute prohibition; but the majority of critical commentators judge it a Matthean redactional addition, and the source question comes apart from the doctrinal one — so no reading clearly wins. Strong by rabbinic and historical-Jesus lights, weaker by the form-critical transcriptional argument · bears directly on whether “indissolubility” or “divorce-for-adultery” is the dominical teaching

The data every explanation must fit

Four independent New Testament witnesses report Jesus’ divorce saying, and only one carries an exception. Paul (c. 55, the earliest of all) gives the Lord’s charge with no qualification — the wife is “not to depart… but and if she depart, let her remain unmarried” (1 Corinthians 7:10–11). Mark 10:11–12 is likewise absolute, and adds a clause found nowhere else — “and if a woman shall put away her husband… she committeth adultery.” Luke 16:18 is absolute too. Only Matthew qualifies the saying, and he does it twice — “saving for the cause of fornication” (parektos logou porneias, 5:32) and “except it be for fornication” (mē epi porneia, 19:9). Three explanations of this asymmetry have been advanced; the question is which best fits the evidence, and what follows for the dominical teaching — whether Jesus taught an absolute indissolubility that Matthew relaxed, or a divorce-for-unfaithfulness that Mark and Luke compressed.

The three explanations

(A) Matthew added the exception (redaction / “softening”). On this reading — the majority position in modern critical scholarship — the exceptionless form of Paul, Mark, and Luke is the more original, and Matthew (or the Jewish-Christian community for which he wrote) inserted the clause to bring the saying into line with its own pastoral practice. Its engine is a transcriptional argument: given the priority of Mark, it is far easier to picture a later hand relaxing an absolute prohibition than to picture three independent witnesses each hardening an already-qualified one — “especially difficult in” Paul, who reports the charge as the Lord’s own and adds no exception. Rudolf Bultmann made the form-critical case; Joseph Fitzmyer, W. D. Davies and Dale Allison, John Nolland, Donald Hagner, and Ulrich Luz all take the clause to be Matthew’s own.1 A sharp corollary is often drawn: if the original saying was truly exceptionless, Jesus taught a prohibition stricter than any Judaism of his day allowed, and Matthew’s addition merely aligns him with the school of Shammai.2

(B) Mark and Luke abbreviated (the exception was assumed). On this reading the qualification is authentic and was simply taken for granted in a Jewish setting, so Matthew states in full a debate that Mark and Luke compress. The Pharisees’ question — “is it lawful… for every cause?” (Matthew 19:3) — is, on David Instone-Brewer’s reconstruction, a technical reference to the Hillelite “Any Cause” divorce; the live first-century dispute was never whether adultery was grounds (no school denied it) but whether “a matter” in Deuteronomy 24:1 licensed divorce for trivia. Jesus’ “resounding no” rejects the “Any Cause” loophole; Matthew’s clause states the uncontested Shammaite ground in its own words, and Mark and Luke, writing for readers ignorant of the rabbinic shorthand, “summarized the whole debate in one sentence” — a compression “their first readers understood clearly” and later generations, once the “Any Cause” divorce had become the only kind on offer, misread as an absolute ban.3 That Mark demonstrably re-tooled the saying for a non-Jewish audience is not in dispute: his added half — “if a woman shall put away her husband” (Mark 10:12) — envisages a wife-initiated divorce that Jewish law did not allow but Roman and Greek law did, so the tradition was already being adapted to its hearers.4 Craig Keener reaches the same result from the rhetoric: Jesus’ absolute-sounding sayings are hyperbolic, and a first-century hearer would assume the standard exceptions unless told otherwise, so Mark’s bare form abbreviates a saying whose qualifications were culturally understood.5

(C) The clause is “preteritive” — Matthew is also absolute. Bruce Vawter proposed that mē epi porneia means “not even for fornication,” a preterition that sets the whole question of porneia aside rather than granting an exception, so that Matthew agrees with Mark and Luke instead of softening them. It rides alongside a related “no-comment” idea: the case of proven adultery needed no statement because the Mosaic law already ended such a marriage (by death or mandatory divorce), so Jesus is legislating only for the disputed grounds. The reading is a harmonizer’s route to a single absolute teaching — but it is widely judged that the Greek syntax will not bear the preteritive sense, and Vawter himself catalogued the difficulties of such attempts and by 1977 had conceded the grammar, shifting his weight instead to the meaning of porneia.6

Weighing the explanations

Two of the three point the same practical direction. Explanation (B) is the strongest positive case that divorce-for-unfaithfulness is dominical, and it has real force. Under any first-century Jewish reckoning a proven adultery already dissolved the marriage — the Law prescribed death for it (Deuteronomy 22:22) and, where that was not enforced, a mandatory divorce — so Jesus could not have been heard as forbidding divorce for adultery; the exception was not in view in Mark and Luke because it was never in dispute. And the Mark 10:12 datum shows, from the text itself, that the saying was being adapted to its audience — which is exactly what the abbreviation reading requires. The ancient church already read the four texts together this way: Augustine, expounding the discrepancy in On Adulterous Marriages, took Matthew’s exception and Mark’s bare rule as two statements of one teaching rather than a contradiction.7

But explanation (A) is not thereby refuted, and it remains the majority verdict of critical commentary. Its transcriptional argument is genuinely strong: an absolute saying softened by one later evangelist is a more economical account of the manuscript spread than an original exception independently dropped by Paul, Mark, and Luke — and the difficulty is sharpest with Paul, who is not abbreviating a rabbinic debate for Gentiles but issuing the Lord’s charge directly, and still gives no exception. Matthew’s known habit of expanding the sayings of Jesus tells the same way.8 The abbreviation reading (B) also leans, for its full strength, on Instone-Brewer’s “Any Cause” reconstruction, whose weight is itself weighed on his page and not simply granted here.

The decisive move is to see that the two questions come apart. Whether the phrase is Matthew’s composition (A/redaction) and whether the substance — divorce for unfaithfulness — is what Jesus taught (B/authentic meaning) are separable, and the strongest scholarship on each side illustrates it. Fitzmyer holds the clause is Matthew’s own and that it fits an authentically Palestinian Jewish-Christian setting (he reads porneia as forbidden-degree unions, not adultery, on the Qumran evidence).9 On his account the redaction does not soften Jesus toward Hillel; it solves a live pastoral problem for a mixed community. So even a reader persuaded that Matthew penned the words need not conclude that Jesus taught an absolute indissolubility — the “absolute form” of Paul, Mark, and Luke may state the rule against “Any Cause” divorce without pronouncing on the case (adultery) that no one contested. Conversely, one may grant the redaction and still hold, with Bultmann’s corollary, that the earliest recoverable saying was uncompromising. The evidence genuinely underdetermines the doctrinal verdict.

Adversarial assessment

What holds. The abbreviation reading is not special pleading: it rests on a real feature of the texts (Mark’s Gentile adaptation at 10:12), a real feature of the first-century debate (adultery-as-grounds was uncontested, so an “absolute” saying targeting “Any Cause” divorce leaves the adultery case untouched), and a mainstream lexical-rhetorical judgment (Keener’s hyperbole). It explains why Matthew alone spells the clause out — his community needed the Jewish shorthand rendered explicit — without positing that he reversed his Lord.

What is overstated or imprecise. Three cautions. (1) The abbreviation reading does not establish its verdict over the redactional one; it reframes what the exceptionless form means. The transcriptional argument for (A) is undefeated, and Paul’s unqualified charge is its hardest single datum for (B) to absorb, since Paul is not compressing a rabbinic debate. (2) It is an overreach to treat the “Any Cause” reconstruction as settled and then read the whole synoptic difference off it; that reconstruction is itself contested. (3) The preteritive reading (C) should not be leaned on: it is a grammatically strained harmonization that its own author walked back, and pressing it makes Matthew’s clause do no work at all. The honest result is a genuinely divided field in which the source-critical majority favors (A) while the rabbinic-context and rhetorical scholarship supports (B) — and in which the doctrinal payoff hangs less on who wrote the words than on whether an “absolute” form in a Jewish legal setting was ever meant, or heard, as ruling out the one ground no one disputed.

Assessment

Contested. That Matthew’s exception represents authentic dominical teaching — made explicit by Matthew, assumed and so abbreviated by Mark and Luke — is a well-grounded and unrefuted reading, strong on the rabbinic-context and historical-Jesus evidence (the “Any Cause” framing, the uncontested status of adultery as grounds, Mark’s demonstrable adaptation of the saying for Gentiles). But the majority of critical commentators explain the same data as a Matthean redactional addition, and their transcriptional argument — hardest against Paul’s unqualified charge — is not overturned. The field is genuinely disputed with no clear winner, strong by one discipline’s lights and weaker by another’s. Crucially, the source question underdetermines the doctrine: whether the phrase is Matthew’s and whether Jesus permitted divorce for unfaithfulness are separable, so this argument constrains, but does not by itself settle, the contest between the indissolubility reading (weighed across the timeline from Hermas to Trent) and the divorce-for-adultery reading (from Ambrosiaster and Erasmus to Instone-Brewer). What the clause means once granted — a wife’s marital unfaithfulness — is weighed separately under the exception-clause arguments.

Sources


  1. Joseph A. Fitzmyer, “The Matthean Divorce Texts and Some New Palestinian Evidence,” Theological Studies 37 (1976): 197–226, at 207–208 — “this form of the Matthean prohibition of divorce (minus the exceptive phrase) has to be regarded as derived from Mk 10 and adapted by Matthew… These two considerations make it almost certain that the exceptive phrases stem from the pen of the Evangelist.” The foundational form-critical statement is Rudolf Bultmann, The History of the Synoptic Tradition, trans. John Marsh (Blackwell, 1963), pp. 27, 148, treating the exceptive clause as a secondary editorial addition; the same redactional judgment is held by W. D. Davies and Dale C. Allison, Matthew (ICC; T&T Clark, 1988–97) on 5:32/19:9; John Nolland, The Gospel of Matthew (NIGTC; Eerdmans, 2005); Donald A. Hagner, Matthew (WBC; Word, 1993); and Ulrich Luz, Matthew 1–7 (Hermeneia; Fortress, 2007) on 5:32. ↩

  2. The corollary that an exceptionless prohibition makes Jesus stricter than any first-century Jewish school, so that Matthew’s clause aligns him with Shammai, is drawn out in Fitzmyer, “The Matthean Divorce Texts,” 208, 213–216 (with the Qumran Temple Scroll 57:17–19 and Damascus Document 4:12b–5:14a as Palestinian texts opposing divorce/polygamy). On the Hillel–Shammai dispute over “some uncleanness” (Deuteronomy 24:1) see the person page: David Instone-Brewer on divorce. ↩

  3. David Instone-Brewer, “What God Has Joined,” Christianity Today (October 2007) — “When Jesus answered with a resounding no, he wasn’t condemning ‘divorce for any cause,’ but rather the newly invented ‘any cause’ divorce… Luke and Matthew summarized the whole debate in one sentence… It may not be obvious to us, but their first readers understood clearly what they meant… the early church, and even Jewish rabbis, forgot what the ‘any cause’ divorce was.” Fuller form in David Instone-Brewer, Divorce and Remarriage in the Bible: The Social and Literary Context (Eerdmans, 2002). ↩

  4. Fitzmyer, “The Matthean Divorce Texts,” 205 — “V. 12 is a further Marcan extension of the first logion, introduced to suit the contingencies of Gentile Christian communities in areas where Roman and Greek law prevailed and where a woman was permitted to divorce her husband.” So too R. T. France, The Gospel of Mark (NIGTC; Eerdmans, 2002), 393, who judges that Mark 10:12 reflects a setting where a wife could divorce her husband — recognized in Roman law but not in ordinary Jewish law. (The standard counter — that Herodias had used a Roman-style divorce, so the clause had Jewish relevance too — does not undo the point that Mark shaped the saying for his hearers.) Whether this proves Mark redacted the saying for a Gentile audience is weighed on its own under Does Mark 10:12 reflect Roman, not Jewish, law? ↩

  5. Craig S. Keener, …And Marries Another: Divorce and Remarriage in the Teaching of the New Testament (Hendrickson, 1991) — arguing that Jesus’ absolute-sounding divorce sayings are rhetorical/hyperbolic and that a first-century hearer would assume the customary exceptions unless told otherwise, so the unqualified Markan form abbreviates a saying whose qualifications were culturally understood. Cf. the review at Themelios. ↩

  6. Bruce Vawter, “The Divorce Clauses in Mt 5,32 and 19,9,” Catholic Biblical Quarterly 16 (1954): 155–167 (the preteritive proposal, at 162–163), and “Divorce and the New Testament,” CBQ 39 (1977): 528–542 (conceding that the syntax will not sustain the preteritive and shifting to the meaning of porneia, at 531). Fitzmyer, “The Matthean Divorce Texts,” 208 n. 39, cites Vawter’s 1954 article as itself supplying “a list of such [tortuous] attempts and the problems inherent in them,” and calls the family of harmonizing readings “subterfuges to avoid the obvious.” On the grammar of the exception phrases (including versus excepting porneia) see J. J. Guenther, “The Exception Phrases,” Tyndale Bulletin 53.1 (2002): 83–96. ↩

  7. Augustine, On Adulterous Marriages (De coniugiis adulterinis) II.9.8 — “Matthew spoke of this type of adultery. Such a one is not the only one who commits adultery, but, as we read in Mark: ‘Whoever puts away his wife and marries another, commits adultery against her; and if the wife puts away her husband, and marries another, she commits adultery.’” Augustine reads Matthew’s exception and Mark’s unqualified rule as two statements of one teaching, governing the exception by the fuller prohibition; see the person page for his fuller treatment answering Pollentius: Augustine of Hippo on divorce. ↩

  8. Fitzmyer, “The Matthean Divorce Texts,” 208, giving the two reasons critical commentators reject the authenticity of the exceptive phrases: “(i) the greater difficulty in explaining how the more absolute forms of the prohibition in Paul, Mark, and Luke would then have arisen (especially difficult in… Cor 7:10); (ii) the tendency otherwise attested in Matthew of adding things to the sayings of Jesus.” ↩

  9. Fitzmyer, “The Matthean Divorce Texts,” 210–211 — preferring the sense of porneia as “illicit marital unions within the degrees of kinship proscribed by Lv 18:6–18… since there is now further evidence from Qumran literature to support it,” and holding the clause a redactional solution “for Gentile Christians living in the same community with Jewish Christians.” This forbidden-degrees reading is weighed on its own under Does porneia mean an unlawful (incestuous) marriage? ↩