Type: supporting argument (off-timeline) · Assessment: plausible — the vicarious reading is the natural sense of the Greek and the modern majority view, but the actual Corinthian rite and Paul's own stance toward it cannot be recovered · advanced by modern critical exegesis (DeMaris, Thiselton) recovering what the ancient heretics had already assumed.
Related arguments: reading “baptized for the dead” — see also the non-vicarious readings · the locative “over the tombs” reading · the repunctuation reading
“Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?”
— 1 Corinthians 15:29 (KJV). The claim weighed here is that these words mean what they most obviously say: that some people at Corinth were undergoing baptism on behalf of particular dead persons — a genuine vicarious rite — and that Paul, without endorsing or explaining it, throws it at the resurrection-deniers as evidence that they contradict themselves.
The vicarious reading is the oldest one on record — the Valentinians (via Clement's excerpts from Theodotus), the Marcionites (Chrysostom, Didymus), and the Cerinthians (Epiphanius) all took the words to describe a proxy baptism, and Ambrosiaster reports it at Corinth without naming a sect. The orthodox tradition then spent centuries re-reading it. Modern criticism has largely swung back: most recent commentators (Conzelmann, Barrett, Fee conceding the grammar, Thiselton surveying the field, and Richard DeMaris setting it in a Corinthian death-cult) take the plain vicarious sense as the most probable, whatever Paul thought of the practice.
The grammar. The phrase is οἱ βαπτιζόμενοι ὑπὲρ τῶν νεκρῶν — “those being baptized on behalf of the dead.” The natural force of ὑπέρ with the genitive is “on behalf of, for the benefit of” some person; “the dead” (τῶν νεκρῶν) are, on the plainest reading, dead people — the same “dead” whose resurrection the whole chapter is about. Read this way the sentence needs no supplement.1
Paul's distancing. Paul writes in the third person — “what shall they do… why are they baptized” — never “you” or “we,” though he uses the first person freely two verses later (“why stand we in jeopardy every hour?”, v. 30). This is exactly the mark of an ad hominem: he cites what some Corinthians do, presses its logic against them, and neither identifies with it nor pauses to condemn it. That fits a real but marginal practice better than it fits a description of ordinary baptism (which he would state in the first person). The strongest reply from the other side is the ninth-century Photius’s: the third person is not distance from a rite but tact — Paul rebukes the deniers “under other persons” so as not to drive them to despair — a reading weighed under the non-vicarious readings.
The tell-tale re-readings. The orthodox alternatives are themselves evidence, because they are so plainly driven by dogma rather than grammar. Calvin's leading objection is not linguistic but theological — that Paul would not have cited a “magical abuse” without rebuking it — and to avoid the plain sense he must strain “the dead” into “those reckoned as good as dead” (deathbed catechumens). Chrysostom must make “the dead” the baptizand's own body and import the baptismal creed. That the fathers reached for such readings is a measure of how naturally the words say something they did not want them to say.2
Attestation that such rites existed. Epiphanius (Cerinthians of Asia and Galatia) and Chrysostom (Marcionites) independently describe concrete proxy baptisms — the dead baptized “in their names,” a living proxy answering for the corpse — so the practice is not merely conceivable but attested in the early centuries. DeMaris adds that Roman Corinth was unusually preoccupied with the passage and welfare of the dead, giving such a rite a plausible local home.
What holds. As a reading of the Greek, the vicarious sense is the strongest: it takes ὑπέρ and “the dead” in their ordinary force, needs no interpolated word, and accounts for Paul's third-person framing. It is now the majority scholarly view. The ancient heretics were, on the language, simply right about what the sentence says.
What is overstated or imprecise. Three things go beyond the evidence. (1) The rite cannot be reconstructed. Who was baptized for whom, on what theology, and how widely — Paul says nothing, and the confident reconstructions (DeMaris's death-cult integration among them, weighed and found weak on its own page) are educated conjecture, not data. (2) The clear attestations are all heretical. Epiphanius, Chrysostom, and Didymus locate the practice among Marcionites, Cerinthians, and Valentinians; whether the Corinthian instance was a proto-orthodox custom or an aberration Paul merely exploited is undetermined, and it is a real possibility that the “they” are a fringe he neither shares nor approves. (3) Paul's silence is not endorsement. That he declines to rebuke the practice in this one ad hominem does not make it apostolic. It sits, if anything, in tension with his own baptismal theology, where the rite unites the recipient personally with Christ's death and rising (“we are buried with him by baptism into death… that… even so we also should walk in newness of life,” Romans 6:3–4) — a benefit not obviously transferable to a third party, which is exactly the objection the orthodox writers (Didymus, Aquinas) press against the rite. The third-person “they” and this theological strain together make it a live possibility that the practitioners are a fringe Paul neither shares nor approves. The later Latter-day Saint extrapolation — a standing, divinely-mandated ordinance of proxy baptism — rests the whole weight of a doctrine on a verse Paul left uninterpreted, and belongs with the wider apostasy-and-restoration claim rather than with anything the text establishes.
Plausible — probable, indeed, as a reading of the words: some Corinthians were being baptized on behalf of the dead, and Paul turns their practice against their denial of the resurrection without owning it. What stays genuinely uncertain, and keeps this short of sound, is everything the words do not supply — the shape and theology of the rite, whether it was proto-orthodox or heretical, and what Paul himself made of it. The orthodox re-readings (Chrysostom's creedal sense, Calvin's deathbed catechumens) are best judged not as better grammar but as dogmatically-motivated alternatives; they should be flagged as such on those figures' pages, not treated as the plain meaning.
On the grammar and the majority view, Anthony C. Thiselton, The First Epistle to the Corinthians, NIGTC (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 2000), 1240–1249; Gordon D. Fee, The First Epistle to the Corinthians, NICNT (rev. ed., 2014), 801–806 (granting that the natural sense is vicarious, while resisting its theology); Hans Conzelmann, 1 Corinthians, Hermeneia (1975), 275–277. The reported ancient practice: Epiphanius, Panarion 28.6 and Chrysostom, Hom. 1 Cor. 40. ↩
John Calvin, Commentary on 1 Corinthians, on 15:29 (his objection is that Paul would not cite “such a base profanation of baptism… without any word of reproof”) — a theological, not a grammatical, argument (ccel.org). On the rite's setting in Roman Corinth, Richard E. DeMaris, “Corinthian Religion and Baptism for the Dead (1 Corinthians 15:29),” JBL 114/4 (1995): 661–682 (PDF). On the count of readings, Bernard M. Foschini, “‘Those Who Are Baptized for the Dead,’ 1 Cor. 15:29,” CBQ 12–13 (1950–51). ↩